Measurability Proof
Note: I can't finish this till I get Dr Ov's book so I can use Thm 2.4i, 2.4iii, 2.48
Prove that a function $f $on $[a,b]$ is measurable iff $f$ inverse($U$) is measurable for any open set $U$ of $R$.
$\Rightarrow$
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By Theorem 2.4i, and Theorem 2.4iii, we have 2 open sets:
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$ J = { x: f(x)